s stated in Acts 10:34 that "God is not a
respecter of persons." Therefore he does not impute to one unto
condemnation, what He does not impute to another. But he does not
impute first movements to believers, unto condemnation. Neither
therefore does He impute them to unbelievers.

_I answer that,_ It is unreasonable to say that the first movements
of unbelievers are mortal sins, when they do not consent to them.
This is evident for two reasons. First, because the sensuality itself
could not be the subject of mortal sin, as stated above (Q. 79, A.
4). Now the sensuality has the same nature in unbelievers as in
believers. Therefore it is not possible for the mere movements of the
sensuality in unbelievers, to be mortal sins.

Secondly, from the state of the sinner. Because excellence of the
person never diminishes sin, but, on the contrary, increases it, as
stated above (Q. 73, A. 10). Therefore a sin is not less grievous in
a believer than in an unbeliever, but much more so. For the sins of
an unbeliever are more deserving of forgiveness, on account of their
ignorance, according to 1 Tim. 1:13: "I obtained the mercy of God,
because I did it ignorantly in my unbelief": whereas the sins of
believers are more grievous on account of the sacraments of grace,
according to Heb. 10:29: "How much more, do you think, he deserveth
worse punishments . . . who hath esteemed the blood of the testament
unclean, by which he was sanctified?"

Reply Obj. 1: The Apostle is speaking of the condemnation due to
original sin, which condemnation is remitted by the grace of Jesus
Christ, although the _fomes_ of concupiscence remain. Wherefore the
fact that believers are subject to concupiscence is not in them a
sign of the condemnation due to original sin, as it is in unbelievers.

In this way also is to be understood the saying of Anselm, wherefore
the Reply to the Second Objection is evident.

Reply Obj. 3: This freedom from liability to concupiscence was a
result of original justice. Wherefore that which is opposed to such
liability pertains, not to actual but to original sin.
________________________

SIXTH ARTICLE [I-II, Q. 89, Art. 6]

Whether Venial Sin Can Be in Anyone with Original Sin Alone?

Objection 1: It would seem that venial sin can be in a man with
original sin alone. For disposition precedes habit. Now venial sin is
a disposition to mortal sin, as stated above (Q. 88, A. 3). Therefore
in an unbeliever, in whom origin