--from which language no one doubts that they
derived their knowledge, through a translation. But in fact we are not
left to Latin authorities. [Out of thirty-eight copies of the Bohairic
version the _pericope de adultera_ is read in fifteen, but in three
forms which will be printed in the Oxford edition. In the remaining
twenty-three, it is left out.] How is it intelligible that this passage
is thus found in nearly half the copies--except on the hypothesis that
they formed an integral part of the Memphitic version? They might have
been easily omitted: but how could they have been inserted?

Once more. The Ethiopic version (fifth century),--the Palestinian Syriac
(which is referred to the fifth century),--the Georgian (probably fifth
or sixth century),--to say nothing of the Slavonic, Arabic and Persian
versions, which are of later date,--all contain the portion of narrative
in dispute. The Armenian version also (fourth-fifth century) originally
contained it; though it survives at present in only a few copies. Add
that it is found in Cod. D, and it will be seen that in all parts of
ancient Christendom this portion of Scripture was familiarly known in
early times.

But even this is not all. Jerome, who was familiar with Greek MSS. (and
who handled none of later date than B and [Symbol: Aleph]), expressly
relates (380) that the _pericope de adultera_ 'is found in many copies
both Greek and Latin[608].' He calls attention to the fact that what is
rendered 'sine peccato' is [Greek: anamartetos] in the Greek: and lets
fall an exegetical remark which shews that he was familiar with copies
which exhibited (in ver. 8) [Greek: egraphan enos ekastou auton tas
amartias],--a reading which survives to this day in one uncial (U) and
at least eighteen cursive copies of the fourth Gospel[609]. Whence is
it--let me ask in passing--that so many Critics fail to see that
_positive_ testimony like the foregoing far outweighs the adverse
_negative_ testimony of [Symbol: Aleph]BT,--aye, and of AC to boot if
they were producible on this point? How comes it to pass that the two
Codexes, [Symbol: Aleph] and B, have obtained such a mastery--rather
exercise such a tyranny--over the imagination of many Critics as quite
to overpower their practical judgement? We have at all events
established our first proposition: viz. that from the earliest period to
which testimony reaches, the incident of 'the woman taken in adultery'
occupied its present place