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5, 6;--the blessings of the Sabbath, theirs, Ex. xx. 10;--the privilege of offering sacrifices secured, Lev. 22. 18; and stated religious instruction provided for them. Deut. xxxi. 9, 12. Now, does this _same law_ authorize and appoint the _individual extermination_ of those very persons, whose lives and general interests it so solicitously protects? These laws were given to the Israelites, long _before_ they entered Canaan; and they must of necessity have inferred from them, that a multitude of the inhabitants of the land would _continue in it_, under their government. 3. _We argue that these commands did not require the_ INDIVIDUAL _destruction of the Canaanites unconditionally, from the fact that the most pious Israelites never seem to have so regarded them._ Joshua was selected as the leader of Israel to execute God's threatenings upon Canaan. He had no _discretionary_ power. God's commands were his _official instructions._ Going _beyond_ them would have been usurpation; refusing _to carry them out,_ rebellion and treason. For not obeying, in _every particular,_ and in a _single_ instance, God's command respecting the Amalekites, Saul was rejected from being king. Now, if God commanded the individual destruction of all the Canaanitish nations, Joshua _disobeyed him in every instance._ For at his death, the Israelites still _"dwelt among them,"_ and each nation is mentioned by name. See Judges i. 5, and yet we are told that "Joshua was full of the spirit of the Lord and of WISDOM," Deut. xxxiv. 9. (of course, he could not have been ignorant of the meaning of those commands,)--that "the Lord was with him," Josh. vi. 27; and that he "left nothing undone of all that the Lord commanded Moses;" and further, that he "took all that land." Joshua xi, 15-23. Also, that "the Lord gave unto Israel all the land which he swore to give unto their fathers, and they possessed it and dwelt therein, and there _stood not a man_ of _all_ their enemies before them." "The Lord delivered _all their_ enemies into their hand," &c. How can this testimony be reconciled with itself, if we suppose that the command to _destroy_ enjoined _individual_ extermination, and the command to _drive out_, enjoined the unconditional expulsion of individuals from the country, rather than their expulsion from the _possession_ or _ownership_ of it, as the lords of the soil? It is true, multitudes of the Canaanites were slain, but in every case it was in
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