hall presently state what
inference Dr. Lightfoot wishes to draw from a statement the general
correctness of which he does not consider as at all certain. If this
doubt exist, however, of what value can the passage from Papias be as
evidence?

I cannot perceive that, if we do not reject it altogether on the ground
of possible or probable incorrectness, there can be any reasonable doubt
as to what the actual statement was. "Matthew composed the Oracles in
the Hebrew language," and not in Greek, "and each one interpreted them
as he could." The original work of Matthew was written in Hebrew: our
first synoptic is a Greek work: therefore it cannot possibly be the
original composition of Matthew, whoever Matthew may have been, but at
the best can only be a free translation. A free translation, I say,
because it does not bear any of the traces of close translation. Our
synoptic, indeed, does not purport to be a translation at all, but if
it be a version of the work referred to by Papias, or the Presbyter, a
translation it must be. As it is not in its original form, however, and
no one can affirm what its precise relation to the work of Matthew may
be, the whole value of the statement of Papias is lost.

The inference which Dr. Lightfoot considers himself entitled to draw
from the testimony of Papias is in most curious contrast with his
severe handling of that part of the testimony which does not suit him.
Papias, or the Presbyter, states regarding the Hebrew Oracles of
Matthew that "each one interpreted them as he could." The use of the
verb "interpreted" in the past tense, instead of "interprets" in the
present, he considers, clearly indicates that the time which Papias
contemplates is not the time when he writes his book. Each one
interpreted as he could when the Oracles were written, but the
necessity of which he speaks had passed away; and Dr. Lightfoot arrives
at the conclusion: "In other words, it implies the existence of a
recognised Greek translation _when Papias wrote_ ... But if a Greek
St. Matthew existed in the time of Papias we are forbidden by all
considerations of historical probability to suppose that it was any
other than our St. Matthew." [121:1] It is very probable that, at the
time when Papias wrote, there may have been several translations of the
"Oracles" and not merely one, but from this to the assertion that the
words imply a "recognised" version which was necessarily "our St.
Matthew" is a remarkabl