hrist
might be baptized, but also for other reasons, as stated above (A.
1). And yet, even if it were instituted merely in order that Christ
might be baptized therewith, it was still necessary for others to
receive this baptism, in order to avoid the objection mentioned above.

Reply Obj. 2: Others who approached to be baptized by John could not,
indeed, confer anything on his baptism: yet neither did they receive
anything therefrom, save only the sign of penance.

Reply Obj. 3: This was the baptism of "penance," for which children
were not suited; wherefore they were not baptized therewith. But to
bring the nations into the way of salvation was reserved to Christ
alone, who is the "expectation of the nations," as we read Gen.
49:10. Indeed, Christ forbade the apostles to preach the Gospel to
the Gentiles before His Passion and Resurrection. Much less fitting,
therefore, was it for the Gentiles to be baptized by John.
_______________________

FIFTH ARTICLE [III, Q. 38, Art. 5]

Whether John's Baptism Should Have Ceased After Christ Was Baptized?

Objection 1: It would seem that John's baptism should have ceased
after Christ was baptized. For it is written (John 1:31): "That He
may be made manifest in Israel, therefore am I come baptizing in
water." But when Christ had been baptized, He was made sufficiently
manifest, both by the testimony of John and by the dove coming down
upon Him, and again by the voice of the Father bearing witness to
Him. Therefore it seems that John's baptism should not have endured
thereafter.

Obj. 2: Further, Augustine says (Super Joan., Tract. iv): "Christ was
baptized, and John's baptism ceased to avail." Therefore it seems
that, after Christ's baptism, John should not have continued to
baptize.

Obj. 3: Further, John's baptism prepared the way for Christ's. But
Christ's baptism began as soon as He had been baptized; because "by
the touch of His most pure flesh He endowed the waters with a
regenerating virtue," as Bede asserts (Mag. Sent. iv, 3). Therefore
it seems that John's baptism ceased when Christ had been baptized.

_On the contrary,_ It is written (John 3:22, 23): "Jesus . . . came
into the land of Judea . . . and baptized: and John also was
baptizing." But Christ did not baptize before being baptized.
Therefore it seems that John continued to baptize after Christ had
been baptized.

_I answer that,_ It was not fitting for the baptism of John to cease
when Christ had been