_On the contrary,_ It is written (Matt. 3:13) that "Jesus cometh from
Galilee to the Jordan, unto John, to be baptized by him."

_I answer that,_ It was fitting for Christ to be baptized. First,
because, as Ambrose says on Luke 3:21: "Our Lord was baptized because
He wished, not to be cleansed, but to cleanse the waters, that, being
purified by the flesh of Christ that knew no sin, they might have the
virtue of baptism"; and, as Chrysostom says (Hom. iv in Matth.),
"that He might bequeath the sanctified waters to those who were to be
baptized afterwards." Secondly, as Chrysostom says (Hom. iv in
Matth.), "although Christ was not a sinner, yet did He take a sinful
nature and 'the likeness of sinful flesh.' Wherefore, though He
needed not baptism for His own sake, yet carnal nature in others had
need thereof." And, as Gregory Nazianzen says (Orat. xxxix) "Christ
was baptized that He might plunge the old Adam entirely in the
water." Thirdly, He wished to be baptized, as Augustine says in a
sermon on the Epiphany (cxxxvi), "because He wished to do what He had
commanded all to do." And this is what He means by saying: "So it
becometh us to fulfil all justice" (Matt. 3:15). For, as Ambrose says
(on Luke 3:21), "this is justice, to do first thyself that which thou
wishest another to do, and so encourage others by thy example."

Reply Obj. 1: Christ was baptized, not that He might be cleansed, but
that He might cleanse, as stated above.

Reply Obj. 2: It was fitting that Christ should not only fulfil what
was prescribed by the Old Law, but also begin what appertained to the
New Law. Therefore He wished not only to be circumcised, but also to
be baptized.

Reply Obj. 3: Christ is the first principle of baptism's spiritual
effect. Unto this He was not baptized, but only in water.
_______________________

SECOND ARTICLE [III, Q. 39, Art. 2]

Whether It Was Fitting for Christ to Be Baptized with John's Baptism?

Objection 1: It would seem that it was unfitting for Christ to be
baptized with John's baptism. For John's baptism was the "baptism of
penance." But penance is unbecoming to Christ, since He had no sin.
Therefore it seems that He should not have been baptized with John's
baptism.

Obj. 2: Further, John's baptism, as Chrysostom says (Hom. de Bapt.
Christi), "was a mean between the baptism of the Jews and that of
Christ." But "the mean savors of the nature of the extremes"
(Aristotle, De Partib. Animal.). Since,