that those to whom it was applied were slaves." Thus,
according to Mr. Barnes, the word in question denotes a slave, or a
hired servant, or, as he has elsewhere said, an apprentice. It denotes
"servant of _any_ kind," whether "voluntary or involuntary."

Such is the positive assertion of Mr. Barnes. But where is the proof?
Where is the authority on which it rests? Surely, if this word is
applied to hired servants, either in the Greek classics or in the New
Testament, Mr. Barnes, or Mr. Sumner, or some other learned
abolitionist, should refer us to the passage where it is so used. We
have Mr. Barnes' assertion, again and again repeated, in his very
elaborate Notes on the Epistle to Philemon; but not the shadow of an
authority for any such use of the word. But stop: in making this
assertion, he refers us to his "Notes on Eph. vi 5, and 1 Tim. vi."
Perhaps we may find his authority by the help of one of these
references. We turn, then, to Eph. vi. 5; and we find the following
note: "Servants. [Greek: Hoi douloi]. The word here used denotes one who
is bound to render service to another, whether that service be free or
voluntary, and may denote, therefore, either a slave, or one who binds
himself to render service to another. _It is often used in these senses
in the New Testament, just as it is elsewhere._"[172] Why, then, if it
is so often used to denote a hired servant, or an apprentice, or a
voluntary servant of any kind, in the New Testament, is not at least one
such instance of its use produced by Mr. Barnes? He must have been aware
that one such authority from the New Testament was worth more than his
bare assertion, though it were a hundred times repeated. Yet no such
authority is adduced or referred to; he merely supports his assertion in
the one place by his assertion in the other?

Let us look, in the next place, to his other reference, which is to 1
Tim. vi. 1. Here, again, we find not the shadow of an authority that the
word in question is applicable to "hired servants," or "apprentices." We
simply meet the oft-repeated assertion of the author, that it is
applicable to _any_ species of servitude. He refers from assertion to
assertion, and nowhere gives a single authority to the point in
question. If we may believe him, such authorities are abundant, even in
the New Testament; yet he leaves the whole matter to rest upon his own
naked assertion! Yea, as Greek scholars, he would have us to believe
that [Greek: dou