xpounded the passage before us without any regard to
the difference of the interpretation as to the whole, and have supposed
the reference to Christ to be the correct one. But it is still
incumbent upon us: I. to give the history of the interpretation; II.
to refute the arguments against the Messianic interpretation; III. to
state the arguments in favour of it; and IV. to show that the
non-Messianic interpretation is untenable.

[Footnote 1: One needs only to consider passages such as this, to be
enabled to distinguish between the ideal and real Present, and to be
convinced of the utter futility of the chief argument against the
genuineness of the second part, viz., that the Babylonish exile appears
as present. "Proceeding from the certainty of deliverance"--so _Hitzig_
remarks--"the Prophet here _beholds_ in spirit that going on, to which,
in chap. xl. 9, he exhorts." If the Prophet beholds at all in the
spirit, why should he not see in spirit the misery also?]

[Footnote 2: _Simonis. Onom._: [Hebrew: izih], _quem aspergat_, _i.e._,
_purificet et expiet Domimus_; _Gesenius_: _quod vix aliter explicari
potest quam_: _quem consperget_, _i.e._, _expiabit Jehova._ _Fuerst_
gives a different derivation; but it at once shows itself to be
untenable.]

[Footnote 3: In order to defend this explanation, interpreters have
referred to the LXX: [Greek: houto thaumasontai ethne polla ep'auto];
but even _Martini_ remarks: "From a dark passage, they have tried, by
ingenious conjecturing, to bring out any sense whatsoever."]

[Footnote 4: Thus _Theodoret_ says: "For they who did not receive the
prophetic promises and announcements, but served idols, shall, through
the messengers of the truth, see the power of the promised One, and
perceive His greatness." _Jerome_: "The rulers of the world, who had
not the Law and the Prophets, and to whom no prophecies concerning Him
were given, even they shall see and perceive. By the comparison with
them, the hardness of the Jews is reproved, who, although they saw and
heard, yet verified Isaiah's prophecy against them." _Calvin_: "The
Jews had, through the Law and the Prophets, heard something of Christ,
but to the Gentiles He was altogether unknown. Hence it follows that
these words properly refer to the Gentiles."]

[Footnote 5: According to _Knobel_, the author is supposed to speak, in
chap. liii. 1, in his own name and that of the other prophets; in vers.
2-6, in the name of the whole