(or fleshly table of the heart,) as they were when deposited in the Ark
thirty-three hundred years ago. Therefore we think that here is clear
proof that he has kept up the distinction between the "handwriting of
ordinances" (meaning Moses' own handwriting in his book,) and the "ten
commandments writen by the finger of God."

Let us now turn to the Epistle of James, said to be written more than
twenty-five years after the law of ceremonies was nailed to the cross,
and see if he does not teach us distinctly, that we are bound to keep
the commandments given on tables of stone. He says, "the man that shall
be a DOER of the _perfect law_ of liberty shall be blessed in his deed."
i: 25. "If ye fulfill the royal _law_ according to the scripture, thou
shalt love thy neighbor as thyself, ye do well." Why? Because the
Saviour in quoting from the commandments, in answer to the Ruler, what
he should do to inherit eternal life, taught the same doctrine. Matt.
xix: 19. Further: "For whosoever shall keep the whole _law_ and yet
offend in one point, shall be guilty of _all_." In the next verse he
quotes from the ten commandments again, namely, Adultery and Murder
(what the Saviour in the fifth chapter of Matt. calls the [27]least,
that is the smallest commandment,) and says if we commit them we become
transgressors of the _law_. Of what _law_? Next verse says the _law_ of
_liberty_ by which we are to be "judged." ii: 8, 11.

Now will it not be admitted by every reasonable person that James has
included the whole of the ten commandments, by calling them the perfect
law of liberty. 2d, "The royal _law_ according to the scripture," and
3d, "the _law of liberty_ by which we are to be judged." (Royal relates
to imperial and kingly.) Perfect means COMPLETE, _entire_, the WHOLE.
Then I understand James thus: This _law_ emenated from the king, the
Supreme Ruler of the universe, and to be perfect must be just what it
was when it came from his hand, and that no _change_ had, or could take
place, (and remember now, this is more than twenty-five years since the
ceremonies with the Jewish Sabbaths were nailed to the cross,) for the
very best of reasons, until the Judgment, because he shows we are to be
judged by _that law_. Then I ask by what parity of reasoning any one can
make the law of the ten commandments perfect, while they at the same
time assert that the fourth one is abolished? and that on no better
evidence than calling it the Jewish Sab