ore than what they paid in usury, but
it is commanded that the property be sold, and the price be restored,
of course according to the amount taken in usury.

Reply Obj. 3: The proceeds of money taken in usury are due to the
person who acquired them not by reason of the usurious money as
instrumental cause, but on account of his own industry as principal
cause. Wherefore he has more right to the goods acquired with
usurious money than to the usurious money itself.
_______________________

FOURTH ARTICLE [II-II, Q. 78, Art. 4]

Whether It Is Lawful to Borrow Money Under a Condition of Usury?

Objection 1: It would seem that it is not lawful to borrow money
under a condition of usury. For the Apostle says (Rom. 1:32) that
they "are worthy of death . . . not only they that do" these sins,
"but they also that consent to them that do them." Now he that
borrows money under a condition of usury consents in the sin of the
usurer, and gives him an occasion of sin. Therefore he sins also.

Obj. 2: Further, for no temporal advantage ought one to give another
an occasion of committing a sin: for this pertains to active scandal,
which is always sinful, as stated above (Q. 43, A. 2). Now he that
seeks to borrow from a usurer gives him an occasion of sin. Therefore
he is not to be excused on account of any temporal advantage.

Obj. 3: Further, it seems no less necessary sometimes to deposit
one's money with a usurer than to borrow from him. Now it seems
altogether unlawful to deposit one's money with a usurer, even as it
would be unlawful to deposit one's sword with a madman, a maiden with
a libertine, or food with a glutton. Neither therefore is it lawful
to borrow from a usurer.

_On the contrary,_ He that suffers injury does not sin, according to
the Philosopher (Ethic. v, 11), wherefore justice is not a mean
between two vices, as stated in the same book (ch. 5). Now a usurer
sins by doing an injury to the person who borrows from him under a
condition of usury. Therefore he that accepts a loan under a
condition of usury does not sin.

_I answer that,_ It is by no means lawful to induce a man to sin, yet
it is lawful to make use of another's sin for a good end, since even
God uses all sin for some good, since He draws some good from every
evil as stated in the Enchiridion (xi). Hence when Publicola asked
whether it were lawful to make use of an oath taken by a man swearing
by false gods (which is a manifest sin, for he giv